Multiple Choice Identify the
choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.


1.

The SI unit for speed is
a.  mph.  c.  m/s.  b.  ft/s^{2}.  d.  Dv /
t. 


2.

On a speedtime graph, a line with a negative slope indicates that the object
is
a.  speeding up.  c.  not moving.  b.  slowing down.  d.  traveling at a constant
speed. 


3.

The combination of all of the forces acting on an object is called the
a.  total force.  c.  super force.  b.  union of forces.  d.  net force. 


4.

If the net force acting on a stationary object is zero, then the object
will
a.  accelerate in the direction of the strongest force.  b.  remain at
rest.  c.  begin moving backwards.  d.  decelerate at a steady rate of
speed. 


5.

Average speed can be represented by the mathematical expression
a.  distance/time.  c.  time –
distance.  b.  distance ´ time.  d.  time +
distance. 


6.

The _____ of an object consists of its speed and direction.
a.  velocity  c.  average speed  b.  instantaneous speed  d.  displacement 


7.

The average speed of a runner who runs 500.0 m in 1.6 min is
a.  0.19 m/s.  c.  96 m/s.  b.  5.2 m/s.  d.  312 m/s. 


8.

A car moving at an average speed of 55.0 mi/h for 4.25 h has traveled
a.  0.08 mi.  c.  55 mi.  b.  13 mi.  d.  234 mi. 


9.

On a distance vs. time graph of an object’s motion, distance is
usually
a.  plotted on the xaxis.  c.  the dependent
variable.  b.  greater than time.  d.  measured in ft/min. 


10.

Displacement must always indicate
a.  velocity.  c.  speed.  b.  direction.  d.  time. 


11.

Speeding up, slowing down, and changing direction is best described as
a.  velocity.  c.  displacement.  b.  distance.  d.  acceleration. 


12.

The equation for finding average acceleration for straightline motion is
a.  initial velocity – final velocity ´
time.  b.  final velocity – initial velocity/time.  c.  initial velocity +
final velocity + time.  d.  initial velocity + final velocity –
time. 


13.

On a velocity vs. time graph, what shows the value of the acceleration?
a.  the slope of the line  c.  the yaxis  b.  the xaxis  d.  the final
velocity 


14.

On a distance vs. time graph, the line of an object at rest is a
a.  curved line with a slope of zero.  c.  jagged line with a negative
slope.  b.  flat line with a slope of zero.  d.  curved line with a positive
slope. 


15.

The difference between speed and velocity is that velocity includes
a.  direction.  c.  time.  b.  distance.  d.  weight. 


16.

Friction is defined as the
a.  force that opposes motion between two surfaces that are touching.  b.  rate at which
velocity changes.  c.  resistance of an object to a change in its
velocity.  d.  speed of an object in a particular direction. 


17.

On a speed vs. time graph, constant acceleration is represented by a
a.  straight line.  c.  jagged line.  b.  slightly sloped line.  d.  steeply sloped
line. 


18.

The law that states that every object maintains constant velocity unless acted
on by an unbalanced force is
a.  Newton’s first law of motion.  b.  Newton’s second law of
motion.  c.  Newton’s third law of motion.  d.  the law of conservation of
momentum. 


19.

The law that states that for every action force there is an equal and opposite
reaction force is
a.  Newton’s first law of motion.  b.  Newton’s second law of
motion.  c.  Newton’s third law of motion.  d.  the law of conservation of
momentum. 


20.

The law that states that the unbalanced force acting on an object equals the
object’s mass times its acceleration is
a.  Newton’s first law of motion.  b.  Newton’s second law of
motion.  c.  Newton’s third law of motion.  d.  the law of conservation of
momentum. 


21.

Which of the following equations is correct?
a.  w = mg  c.  w = g/m  b.  w = m/g  d.  w = g + m 


22.

Express the following as an equation: One newton is the force that can give an
object with a mass of 1 kg an acceleration of 1 m/s^{2}.
a.  1 N = 1 kg ÷ 1 m/s^{2}  c.  1 N = 1 m/s^{2} ÷ 1
kg  b.  1 N ´ 1 kg = 1 m/s^{2}  d.  1 N = 1 kg ´ 1
m/s^{2} 


23.

Which object has the greatest inertia?
a.  a tennis ball  c.  a beach ball  b.  a bowling ball  d.  a volleyball 


24.

Which of the following will result in the greatest acceleration?
a.  56 N acting on a 1kg box  c.  23 N acting on a 2kg
box  b.  56 N acting on a 2kg box  d.  23 N acting on a 5kg box 


25.

A force of 240.0 N causes an object to accelerate at 3.2 m/s^{2}. What
is the mass of the object?
a.  0.013 kg  c.  240 kg  b.  75 kg  d.  768 kg 


26.

If an equal force is applied to two cars of equal mass, Car A and Car B, Car A
will have _____ acceleration as (than) Car B.
a.  the same  c.  less  b.  greater  d.  the opposite 


27.

How much does a 59.0 kg woman weigh on Earth?
a.  6.02 N  c.  145 lb  b.  59.0 lb  d.  578 N 


28.

Which is an example of projectile motion?
a.  a rolling bowling ball  c.  a balloon rising in the air  b.  a dart thrown at a
dart board  d.  a highspeed
train accelerating 


29.

An object’s momentum is determined by the object’s
a.  weight and velocity.  c.  mass and velocity.  b.  mass and acceleration.  d.  weight and
acceleration. 


30.

Calculate the velocity of a 90.5 kg man running south with a momentum of 389 kg
• m/s.
a.  0.233 m/s south  c.  23.3 m/s south  b.  4.30 m/s south  d.  35.2 m/s south 


31.

The SI unit of force, named after the scientist who described the relationship
between motion and force, is called the
a.  newton.  c.  curie.  b.  einstein.  d.  pasteur 


32.

Which of the following units is used to measure acceleration?
a.  m/s  c.  m/s^{2}  b.  m s  d.  m^{2}/s^{2} 


33.

Which of the following is true?
a.  Weight and mass are proportional but not equal.  b.  Weight is
gravitational force an object experiences due to its mass.  c.  The weight of an
object on Earth is greater than the weight of the same object on the moon, but the object’s
mass stays the same.  d.  All of the
above 


34.

The tendency of an object at rest to remain at rest is
a.  inertia.  c.  free fall.  b.  momentum.  d.  acceleration. 


35.

The transfer of energy to a body by the application of a force that causes the
body to move in the direction of the force is called
a.  power.  c.  distance.  b.  work.  d.  mechanical
advantage 


36.

A boy exerts an average force of 65 N when he lifts a box 1.2 meters. How much
work does he do?


37.

_____ is defined as the rate at which work is done.
a.  Power  c.  Speed  b.  Joule  d.  Mechanical
advantage 


38.

How much power is required to do 180 J of work in 2.4 s?
a.  7.5 W  c.  178 W  b.  75 W  d.  430 W 


39.

How much power is required to lift a 30.0 N chair 0.20 m in 2.0 s?
a.  1.0 W  c.  12 W  b.  3.0 W  d.  15 W 


40.

A pulley with a mechanical advantage of 5.00 is used to lift a bucket weighing
285 N. How much force must be used to lift the bucket?
a.  57.0 N  c.  285 N  b.  280 N  d.  1,425 N 


41.

Lifting a car using a car jack is easier because it requires
a.  less force.  c.  less time.  b.  less work.  d.  None of the
above 


42.

_____ is a measure of the ability to do work.
a.  Photosynthesis  c.  Respiration  b.  Power  d.  Energy 


43.

Calculate the gravitational potential energy relative to the ground when an 82
kg person climbs to the top of a 2.0 m stepladder.
a.  164 J  c.  402 J  b.  3.3 ´
10^{2} J  d.  1.6 ´ 10^{3} J 


44.

What is the kinetic energy of a 1.40 kg discus with a speed of 22.5 m/s?
a.  15.8 J  c.  354 J  b.  31.5 J  d.  709 J 


45.

A dog running at a speed of 12 m/s has 1,080 J of kinetic energy. What is the
mass of the dog?
a.  7.5 kg  c.  30 kg  b.  15 kg  d.  45 kg 


46.

The law of conservation of energy states that energy
a.  is created from motion.  c.  is always equal and
opposite.  b.  cannot be created or destroyed.  d.  can only be converted into
heat. 


47.

_____ is the ratio of useful work output to work input.
a.  Potential energy  c.  Kinetic energy  b.  Efficiency  d.  Power 


48.

What are the units of work?
a.  J  c.  kg • m^{2}/s^{2}  b.  N • m  d.  All of the
above 


49.

A machine is a device that
a.  requires less work to do a given task.  b.  decreases the amount of work done by a given
force.  c.  increases energy.  d.  can multiply and change the direction of an
input force. 


50.

What is the gravitational potential energy of a 54 kg box that is 8.0 m above
the ground?
a.  5,500 J  c.  3,400 J  b.  4,300 J  d.  550 J 


51.

What are the units of power?
a.  watts  c.  joules per second  b.  horsepower  d.  All of the
above 


52.

Gravitational potential energy depends on
a.  the mass of the object.  c.  the acceleration due to
gravity.  b.  the height of the object.  d.  All of the above 


53.

A medicine ball has a mass of 5 kg and is thrown with a speed of 2 m/s. What is
its kinetic energy?
a.  100 J  c.  2,000 J  b.  10 J  d.  500 J 


54.

According to the first law of thermodynamics,
a.  there is no such thing as a perpetual motion machine.  b.  the energy of a
system is constant.  c.  the total energy used in any process is
conserved.  d.  in any process there is a decrease in potential
energy. 


55.

The Fahrenheit temperature scale is defined by which of the following
temperatures?
a.  Water boils at 100 degrees and freezes at 32 degrees.  b.  Water boils at 212
degrees and freezes at 32 degrees.  c.  Water evaporates at 212 degrees and freezes at
0 degrees.  d.  Liquid water turns to a gas at 100 degrees and to a solid at 0
degrees. 


56.

Temperature is a measure of the average _____ energy of an object’s
particles.
a.  mechanical  c.  potential  b.  kinetic  d.  light 


57.

Which of the following is the name of a temperature scale?
a.  Celsius  c.  Kelvin  b.  Fahrenheit  d.  All of the
above 


58.

The temperature at which all molecular motion stops is
a.  0°C.  c.  0 K.  b.  0°F.  d.  All of the
above 


59.

Calculate the energy transferred when raising the temperature of 16 kg of water
by 3°C (c = 4,186 J/kg • K).
a.  785 J  c.  1.26 10^{5} J  b.  2.2
kJ  d.  2.0
10^{5} J 


60.

Calculate the specific heat for a 20 g piece of metal if 30 J of energy is
required to raise its temperature by 12.5 K.
a.  0.12 J/kg • K  c.  120 J/kg • K  b.  7.5 J/kg • K  d.  48 kJ/kg •
K 


61.

As the kinetic energy of the molecules in a substance increases, the
a.  temperature of the substance increases.  b.  temperature of the
substance decreases.  c.  potential energy of the substance
changes.  d.  temperature remains the same. 


62.

The temperature of a substance increases by 3 K when 1,635 J is added to a 2 kg
quantity of the substance. What is the specific heat of the substance?
a.  242 J/kg • K  c.  300 J/kg • K  b.  272 J/kg • K  d.  817 J/kg •
K 


63.

The temperature of 1.5 kg of ethanol is 37°C. What will the final
temperature be if 80,000 J of energy as heat is added to the ethanol?


64.

What is –175°C on the Kelvin scale?
a.  76 K  c.  98 K  b.  89 K  d.  448 K 


65.

SPECIFIC HEATS AT 25° C
Substance  c (J/kg • K)  Substance  c (J/kg • K)  Water (liquid)  4,186  Copper  385  Steam  1,870  Gold  129  Ammonia (gas)  2,060  Iron  449  Ethanol (liquid)  2,440  Mercury  140  Aluminum  897  Lead  129  Carbon (graphite)  709  Silver  234     
Which substance listed in the table above has a specific heat
approximately 10 times greater than the specific heat of silver?
a.  water  c.  carbon  b.  ethanol  d.  mercury 


66.

The _____ of a longitudinal wave radiates outward from its source, while the
particles vibrate back and forth about their original positions.
a.  medium  c.  crest  b.  wave front  d.  kinetic energy 


67.

The maximum displacement of a particle by a wave is called
a.  amplitude.  c.  frequency.  b.  wavelength.  d.  period. 


68.

The _____ is the distance between two crests of a wave.
a.  amplitude  c.  frequency  b.  wavelength  d.  period 


69.

The _____ is the time it takes for one full vibration of a particle in a
medium.
a.  period  c.  amplitude  b.  frequency  d.  wave speed 


70.

_____ is the inverse of period.
a.  Wavelength  c.  Frequency  b.  Crest  d.  Amplitude 


71.

Calculate the wave speed for a wave with a wavelength of 2 m and a frequency of
0.3 Hz.
a.  0.6 m/s  c.  0.15 m/s  b.  1.67 m/s  d.  2.3 m/s 


72.

What is the period of a wave with a wave speed of 50 m/s and a wavelength of 10
mm?
a.  2 s  c.  0.02 s  b.  0.2 s  d.  0.0002 s 


73.

The Doppler effect is an observed change in a wave’s
a.  wavelength.  c.  amplitude.  b.  period.  d.  frequency. 


74.

The amplitude of the
wave in the diagram above is
a.  6 m.  c.  0.5 m.  b.  3 m.  d.  1 m. 


75.

The wavelength of the
wave in the diagram above is
a.  6.0 m.  c.  3 m.  b.  1.5 m.  d.  0.75 m. 


76.

A train of waves is moving at a speed of 30 m/s. The frequency of the waves is
10 Hz. What is the wavelength?
a.  300 m  c.  3 m  b.  30 m  d.  0.1 m 


77.

A wave with a frequency of 0.5 Hz and a speed of 10 m/s has a wavelength
of
a.  50 m.  c.  20 m.  b.  0.5 m.  d.  0.2 m. 


78.

The pitch of a sound is most closely related to the
a.  frequency of the sound waves.  b.  distance from the sound
source.  c.  medium through which the sound travels.  d.  intensity of the
sound. 


79.

The rate at which energy flows through a given
space describes light
a.  resonance.  c.  intensity.  b.  pitch.  d.  interference. 


80.

The law of reflection says the angle of incidence is _____ the angle of
reflection.
a.  greater than  c.  equal to  b.  less than  d.  None of the
above 


81.

A virtual image
a.  appears in front of a mirror.  c.  diffuses light.  b.  appears behind a
mirror.  d.  reflects
light. 


82.

When all three additive primary colors are mixed, you see the color
a.  black.  c.  cyan.  b.  magenta.  d.  white. 


83.

A mirage is caused by
a.  dispersing light.  c.  diverging light.  b.  converging light.  d.  refracting
light. 


84.

The amount of energy in a photon of light is proportional to the
a.  medium through which it travels.  b.  shape of the light wave it
creates.  c.  speed of the corresponding light wave.  d.  frequency of the corresponding light
wave. 


85.

The effect in which white light separates into different colors is called
a.  magnification.  c.  reflection.  b.  refraction.  d.  dispersion. 


86.

Appliances connected so that they form a single pathway for charges to flow are
connected in a(n)
a.  series circuit.  c.  open circuit.  b.  parallel circuit.  d.  closed circuit. 


87.

Which of the following is a negatively charged particle?
a.  proton  c.  coulomb  b.  electron  d.  neutron 


88.

_____ is the opposition posed by a material to the flow of current.
a.  Voltage  c.  Resistance  b.  Charge  d.  Ampere 


89.

Current is produced when charges are accelerated by an electric field to move to
a position of lower
a.  temperature.  c.  concentration.  b.  potential energy.  d.  kinetic energy. 


90.

Calculate the resistance of a bulb that draws 0.6 A of current with a potential
difference of 3 V.
a.  0.2 W  c.  5 W  b.  1.8 W  d.  15
W 


91.

A 6.0V battery is connected to a 24W resistor. What
is the current in the resistor?
a.  0.25 A  c.  18 A  b.  4.0 A  d.  144 A 


92.

A device connected to a 120V outlet has 2.0 A of current in it. What is the
power of this device?
a.  48 W  c.  240 W  b.  60 W  d.  480 W 


93.

A circuit breaker acts as a switch creating a(n) _____ circuit when current is
too high.
a.  closed  c.  open  b.  series  d.  parallel 


94.

What voltage is required to pass 0.5 A of current through a 4.5W bulb?
a.  0.11 V  c.  3 V  b.  2.25 V  d.  9 V 


95.

The SI unit of resistance is the
a.  volt.  c.  ohm.  b.  ampere.  d.  joule. 


96.

A resistor has a resistance of 280 W. How much
current is in the resistor if there is a potential difference of 120 V across the resistor?
a.  160 A  c.  0.12 A  b.  0.43 A  d.  2.3 A 


97.

A microwave draws 5.0 A when it is connected to a 120V outlet. If electrical
energy costs $0.090/kW • h, what is the cost of running the microwave for exactly 6
hours?
a.  $2.70  c.  $0.72  b.  $1.60  d.  $0.32 


98.

Potential difference is measured in
a.  amperes.  c.  coulombs.  b.  volts.  d.  joules. 


99.

A flashlight bulb with a potential difference of 4.5 V across its filament has a
power output of 8.0 W. How much current is in the bulb filament?
a.  3.7 A  c.  0.23 A  b.  1.8 A  d.  0.56 A 


100.

A 13W resistor has 0.050 A of current in it. What is
the potential difference across the resistor?
a.  6.5 V  c.  0.065 V  b.  0.65 V  d.  0.0065 V 
