9 Weeks Test/Practice (100 Questions)
 
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9 Weeks Test/Practice (100 Questions)

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 

 1. 

The SI unit for speed is
a.
mph.
c.
m/s.
b.
ft/s2.
d.
Dv / t.
 

 2. 

On a speed-time graph, a line with a negative slope indicates that the object is
a.
speeding up.
c.
not moving.
b.
slowing down.
d.
traveling at a constant speed.
 

 3. 

The combination of all of the forces acting on an object is called the
a.
total force.
c.
super force.
b.
union of forces.
d.
net force.
 

 4. 

If the net force acting on a stationary object is zero, then the object will
a.
accelerate in the direction of the strongest force.
b.
remain at rest.
c.
begin moving backwards.
d.
decelerate at a steady rate of speed.
 

 5. 

Average speed can be represented by the mathematical expression
a.
distance/time.
c.
timedistance.
b.
distance ´ time.
d.
time + distance.
 

 6. 

The _____ of an object consists of its speed and direction.
a.
velocity
c.
average speed
b.
instantaneous speed
d.
displacement
 

 7. 

The average speed of a runner who runs 500.0 m in 1.6 min is
a.
0.19 m/s.
c.
96 m/s.
b.
5.2 m/s.
d.
312 m/s.
 

 8. 

A car moving at an average speed of 55.0 mi/h for 4.25 h has traveled
a.
0.08 mi.
c.
55 mi.
b.
13 mi.
d.
234 mi.
 

 9. 

On a distance vs. time graph of an object’s motion, distance is usually
a.
plotted on the x-axis.
c.
the dependent variable.
b.
greater than time.
d.
measured in ft/min.
 

 10. 

Displacement must always indicate
a.
velocity.
c.
speed.
b.
direction.
d.
time.
 

 11. 

Speeding up, slowing down, and changing direction is best described as
a.
velocity.
c.
displacement.
b.
distance.
d.
acceleration.
 

 12. 

The equation for finding average acceleration for straight-line motion is
a.
initial velocity – final velocity ´ time.
b.
final velocity – initial velocity/time.
c.
initial velocity + final velocity + time.
d.
initial velocity + final velocity – time.
 

 13. 

On a velocity vs. time graph, what shows the value of the acceleration?
a.
the slope of the line
c.
the y-axis
b.
the x-axis
d.
the final velocity
 

 14. 

On a distance vs. time graph, the line of an object at rest is a
a.
curved line with a slope of zero.
c.
jagged line with a negative slope.
b.
flat line with a slope of zero.
d.
curved line with a positive slope.
 

 15. 

The difference between speed and velocity is that velocity includes
a.
direction.
c.
time.
b.
distance.
d.
weight.
 

 16. 

Friction is defined as the
a.
force that opposes motion between two surfaces that are touching.
b.
rate at which velocity changes.
c.
resistance of an object to a change in its velocity.
d.
speed of an object in a particular direction.
 

 17. 

On a speed vs. time graph, constant acceleration is represented by a
a.
straight line.
c.
jagged line.
b.
slightly sloped line.
d.
steeply sloped line.
 

 18. 

The law that states that every object maintains constant velocity unless acted on by an unbalanced force is
a.
Newton’s first law of motion.
b.
Newton’s second law of motion.
c.
Newton’s third law of motion.
d.
the law of conservation of momentum.
 

 19. 

The law that states that for every action force there is an equal and opposite reaction force is
a.
Newton’s first law of motion.
b.
Newton’s second law of motion.
c.
Newton’s third law of motion.
d.
the law of conservation of momentum.
 

 20. 

The law that states that the unbalanced force acting on an object equals the object’s mass times its acceleration is
a.
Newton’s first law of motion.
b.
Newton’s second law of motion.
c.
Newton’s third law of motion.
d.
the law of conservation of momentum.
 

 21. 

Which of the following equations is correct?
a.
w = mg
c.
w = g/m
b.
w = m/g
d.
w = g + m
 

 22. 

Express the following as an equation: One newton is the force that can give an object with a mass of 1 kg an acceleration of 1 m/s2.
a.
1 N = 1 kg ÷ 1 m/s2
c.
1 N = 1 m/s2 ÷ 1 kg
b.
1 N ´ 1 kg = 1 m/s2
d.
1 N = 1 kg ´ 1 m/s2
 

 23. 

Which object has the greatest inertia?
a.
a tennis ball
c.
a beach ball
b.
a bowling ball
d.
a volleyball
 

 24. 

Which of the following will result in the greatest acceleration?
a.
56 N acting on a 1-kg box
c.
23 N acting on a 2-kg box
b.
56 N acting on a 2-kg box
d.
23 N acting on a 5-kg box
 

 25. 

A force of 240.0 N causes an object to accelerate at 3.2 m/s2. What is the mass of the object?
a.
0.013 kg
c.
240 kg
b.
75 kg
d.
768 kg
 

 26. 

If an equal force is applied to two cars of equal mass, Car A and Car B, Car A will have _____ acceleration as (than) Car B.
a.
the same
c.
less
b.
greater
d.
the opposite
 

 27. 

How much does a 59.0 kg woman weigh on Earth?
a.
6.02 N
c.
145 lb
b.
59.0 lb
d.
578 N
 

 28. 

Which is an example of projectile motion?
a.
a rolling bowling ball
c.
a balloon rising in the air
b.
a dart thrown at a dart board
d.
a high-speed train accelerating
 

 29. 

An object’s momentum is determined by the object’s
a.
weight and velocity.
c.
mass and velocity.
b.
mass and acceleration.
d.
weight and acceleration.
 

 30. 

Calculate the velocity of a 90.5 kg man running south with a momentum of 389 kg • m/s.
a.
0.233 m/s south
c.
23.3 m/s south
b.
4.30 m/s south
d.
35.2 m/s south
 

 31. 

The SI unit of force, named after the scientist who described the relationship between motion and force, is called the
a.
newton.
c.
curie.
b.
einstein.
d.
pasteur
 

 32. 

Which of the following units is used to measure acceleration?
a.
m/s
c.
m/s2
b.
m s
d.
m2/s2
 

 33. 

Which of the following is true?
a.
Weight and mass are proportional but not equal.
b.
Weight is gravitational force an object experiences due to its mass.
c.
The weight of an object on Earth is greater than the weight of the same object on the moon, but the object’s mass stays the same.
d.
All of the above
 

 34. 

The tendency of an object at rest to remain at rest is
a.
inertia.
c.
free fall.
b.
momentum.
d.
acceleration.
 

 35. 

The transfer of energy to a body by the application of a force that causes the body to move in the direction of the force is called
a.
power.
c.
distance.
b.
work.
d.
mechanical advantage
 

 36. 

A boy exerts an average force of 65 N when he lifts a box 1.2 meters. How much work does he do?
a.
0 J
c.
66 J
b.
54 J
d.
78 J
 

 37. 

_____ is defined as the rate at which work is done.
a.
Power
c.
Speed
b.
Joule
d.
Mechanical advantage
 

 38. 

How much power is required to do 180 J of work in 2.4 s?
a.
7.5 W
c.
178 W
b.
75 W
d.
430 W
 

 39. 

How much power is required to lift a 30.0 N chair 0.20 m in 2.0 s?
a.
1.0 W
c.
12 W
b.
3.0 W
d.
15 W
 

 40. 

A pulley with a mechanical advantage of 5.00 is used to lift a bucket weighing 285 N. How much force must be used to lift the bucket?
a.
57.0 N
c.
285 N
b.
280 N
d.
1,425 N
 

 41. 

Lifting a car using a car jack is easier because it requires
a.
less force.
c.
less time.
b.
less work.
d.
None of the above
 

 42. 

_____ is a measure of the ability to do work.
a.
Photosynthesis
c.
Respiration
b.
Power
d.
Energy
 

 43. 

Calculate the gravitational potential energy relative to the ground when an 82 kg person climbs to the top of a 2.0 m stepladder.
a.
164 J
c.
402 J
b.
3.3 ´ 102 J
d.
1.6 ´ 103 J
 

 44. 

What is the kinetic energy of a 1.40 kg discus with a speed of 22.5 m/s?
a.
15.8 J
c.
354 J
b.
31.5 J
d.
709 J
 

 45. 

A dog running at a speed of 12 m/s has 1,080 J of kinetic energy. What is the mass of the dog?
a.
7.5 kg
c.
30 kg
b.
15 kg
d.
45 kg
 

 46. 

The law of conservation of energy states that energy
a.
is created from motion.
c.
is always equal and opposite.
b.
cannot be created or destroyed.
d.
can only be converted into heat.
 

 47. 

_____ is the ratio of useful work output to work input.
a.
Potential energy
c.
Kinetic energy
b.
Efficiency
d.
Power
 

 48. 

What are the units of work?
a.
J
c.
kg • m2/s2
b.
N • m
d.
All of the above
 

 49. 

A machine is a device that
a.
requires less work to do a given task.
b.
decreases the amount of work done by a given force.
c.
increases energy.
d.
can multiply and change the direction of an input force.
 

 50. 

What is the gravitational potential energy of a 54 kg box that is 8.0 m above the ground?
a.
5,500 J
c.
3,400 J
b.
4,300 J
d.
550 J
 

 51. 

What are the units of power?
a.
watts
c.
joules per second
b.
horsepower
d.
All of the above
 

 52. 

Gravitational potential energy depends on
a.
the mass of the object.
c.
the acceleration due to gravity.
b.
the height of the object.
d.
All of the above
 

 53. 

A medicine ball has a mass of 5 kg and is thrown with a speed of 2 m/s. What is its kinetic energy?
a.
100 J
c.
2,000 J
b.
10 J
d.
500 J
 

 54. 

According to the first law of thermodynamics,
a.
there is no such thing as a perpetual motion machine.
b.
the energy of a system is constant.
c.
the total energy used in any process is conserved.
d.
in any process there is a decrease in potential energy.
 

 55. 

The Fahrenheit temperature scale is defined by which of the following temperatures?
a.
Water boils at 100 degrees and freezes at 32 degrees.
b.
Water boils at 212 degrees and freezes at 32 degrees.
c.
Water evaporates at 212 degrees and freezes at 0 degrees.
d.
Liquid water turns to a gas at 100 degrees and to a solid at 0 degrees.
 

 56. 

Temperature is a measure of the average _____ energy of an object’s particles.
a.
mechanical
c.
potential
b.
kinetic
d.
light
 

 57. 

Which of the following is the name of a temperature scale?
a.
Celsius
c.
Kelvin
b.
Fahrenheit
d.
All of the above
 

 58. 

The temperature at which all molecular motion stops is
a.
0°C.
c.
0 K.
b.
0°F.
d.
All of the above
 

 59. 

Calculate the energy transferred when raising the temperature of 16 kg of water by 3°C (c = 4,186 J/kg • K).
a.
785 J
c.
1.26 mc059-1.jpg 105 J
b.
2.2 kJ
d.
2.0 mc059-2.jpg 105 J
 

 60. 

Calculate the specific heat for a 20 g piece of metal if 30 J of energy is required to raise its temperature by 12.5 K.
a.
0.12 J/kg • K
c.
120 J/kg • K
b.
7.5 J/kg • K
d.
48 kJ/kg • K
 

 61. 

As the kinetic energy of the molecules in a substance increases, the
a.
temperature of the substance increases.
b.
temperature of the substance decreases.
c.
potential energy of the substance changes.
d.
temperature remains the same.
 

 62. 

The temperature of a substance increases by 3 K when 1,635 J is added to a 2 kg quantity of the substance. What is the specific heat of the substance?
a.
242 J/kg • K
c.
300 J/kg • K
b.
272 J/kg • K
d.
817 J/kg • K
 

 63. 

The temperature of 1.5 kg of ethanol is 37°C. What will the final temperature be if 80,000 J of energy as heat is added to the ethanol?
a.
22°C
c.
59°C
b.
51°C
d.
67°C
 

 64. 

What is –175°C on the Kelvin scale?
a.
76 K
c.
98 K
b.
89 K
d.
448 K
 

 65. 

SPECIFIC HEATS AT 25°C
Substance
c (J/kg K)
Substance
c (J/kg K)
Water (liquid)
4,186
Copper
385
Steam
1,870
Gold
129
Ammonia (gas)
2,060
Iron
449
Ethanol (liquid)
2,440
Mercury
140
Aluminum
897
Lead
129
Carbon (graphite)
709
Silver
234

Which substance listed in the table above has a specific heat approximately 10 times greater than the specific heat of silver?
a.
water
c.
carbon
b.
ethanol
d.
mercury
 

 66. 

The _____ of a longitudinal wave radiates outward from its source, while the particles vibrate back and forth about their original positions.
a.
medium
c.
crest
b.
wave front
d.
kinetic energy
 

 67. 

The maximum displacement of a particle by a wave is called
a.
amplitude.
c.
frequency.
b.
wavelength.
d.
period.
 

 68. 

The _____ is the distance between two crests of a wave.
a.
amplitude
c.
frequency
b.
wavelength
d.
period
 

 69. 

The _____ is the time it takes for one full vibration of a particle in a medium.
a.
period
c.
amplitude
b.
frequency
d.
wave speed
 

 70. 

_____ is the inverse of period.
a.
Wavelength
c.
Frequency
b.
Crest
d.
Amplitude
 

 71. 

Calculate the wave speed for a wave with a wavelength of 2 m and a frequency of 0.3 Hz.
a.
0.6 m/s
c.
0.15 m/s
b.
1.67 m/s
d.
2.3 m/s
 

 72. 

What is the period of a wave with a wave speed of 50 m/s and a wavelength of 10 mm?
a.
2 s
c.
0.02 s
b.
0.2 s
d.
0.0002 s
 

 73. 

The Doppler effect is an observed change in a wave’s
a.
wavelength.
c.
amplitude.
b.
period.
d.
frequency.
 

 74. 


mc074-1.jpg

The amplitude of the wave in the diagram above is
a.
6 m.
c.
0.5 m.
b.
3 m.
d.
1 m.
 

 75. 


mc075-1.jpg

The wavelength of the wave in the diagram above is
a.
6.0 m.
c.
3 m.
b.
1.5 m.
d.
0.75 m.
 

 76. 

A train of waves is moving at a speed of 30 m/s. The frequency of the waves is 10 Hz. What is the wavelength?
a.
300 m
c.
3 m
b.
30 m
d.
0.1 m
 

 77. 

A wave with a frequency of 0.5 Hz and a speed of 10 m/s has a wavelength of
a.
50 m.
c.
20 m.
b.
0.5 m.
d.
0.2 m.
 

 78. 

The pitch of a sound is most closely related to the
a.
frequency of the sound waves.
b.
distance from the sound source.
c.
medium through which the sound travels.
d.
intensity of the sound.
 

 79. 

The rate at which energy flows through a given space describes light
a.
resonance.
c.
intensity.
b.
pitch.
d.
interference.
 

 80. 

The law of reflection says the angle of incidence is _____ the angle of reflection.
a.
greater than
c.
equal to
b.
less than
d.
None of the above
 

 81. 

A virtual image
a.
appears in front of a mirror.
c.
diffuses light.
b.
appears behind a mirror.
d.
reflects light.
 

 82. 

When all three additive primary colors are mixed, you see the color
a.
black.
c.
cyan.
b.
magenta.
d.
white.
 

 83. 

A mirage is caused by
a.
dispersing light.
c.
diverging light.
b.
converging light.
d.
refracting light.
 

 84. 

The amount of energy in a photon of light is proportional to the
a.
medium through which it travels.
b.
shape of the light wave it creates.
c.
speed of the corresponding light wave.
d.
frequency of the corresponding light wave.
 

 85. 

The effect in which white light separates into different colors is called
a.
magnification.
c.
reflection.
b.
refraction.
d.
dispersion.
 

 86. 

Appliances connected so that they form a single pathway for charges to flow are connected in a(n)
a.
series circuit.
c.
open circuit.
b.
parallel circuit.
d.
closed circuit.
 

 87. 

Which of the following is a negatively charged particle?
a.
proton
c.
coulomb
b.
electron
d.
neutron
 

 88. 

_____ is the opposition posed by a material to the flow of current.
a.
Voltage
c.
Resistance
b.
Charge
d.
Ampere
 

 89. 

Current is produced when charges are accelerated by an electric field to move to a position of lower
a.
temperature.
c.
concentration.
b.
potential energy.
d.
kinetic energy.
 

 90. 

Calculate the resistance of a bulb that draws 0.6 A of current with a potential difference of 3 V.
a.
0.2 W
c.
5 W
b.
1.8 W
d.
15 W
 

 91. 

A 6.0-V battery is connected to a 24-W resistor. What is the current in the resistor?
a.
0.25 A
c.
18 A
b.
4.0 A
d.
144 A
 

 92. 

A device connected to a 120-V outlet has 2.0 A of current in it. What is the power of this device?
a.
48 W
c.
240 W
b.
60 W
d.
480 W
 

 93. 

A circuit breaker acts as a switch creating a(n) _____ circuit when current is too high.
a.
closed
c.
open
b.
series
d.
parallel
 

 94. 

What voltage is required to pass 0.5 A of current through a 4.5-W bulb?
a.
0.11 V
c.
3 V
b.
2.25 V
d.
9 V
 

 95. 

The SI unit of resistance is the
a.
volt.
c.
ohm.
b.
ampere.
d.
joule.
 

 96. 

A resistor has a resistance of 280 W. How much current is in the resistor if there is a potential difference of 120 V across the resistor?
a.
160 A
c.
0.12 A
b.
0.43 A
d.
2.3 A
 

 97. 

A microwave draws 5.0 A when it is connected to a 120-V outlet. If electrical energy costs $0.090/kW • h, what is the cost of running the microwave for exactly 6 hours?
a.
$2.70
c.
$0.72
b.
$1.60
d.
$0.32
 

 98. 

Potential difference is measured in
a.
amperes.
c.
coulombs.
b.
volts.
d.
joules.
 

 99. 

A flashlight bulb with a potential difference of 4.5 V across its filament has a power output of 8.0 W. How much current is in the bulb filament?
a.
3.7 A
c.
0.23 A
b.
1.8 A
d.
0.56 A
 

 100. 

A 13-W resistor has 0.050 A of current in it. What is the potential difference across the resistor?
a.
6.5 V
c.
0.065 V
b.
0.65 V
d.
0.0065 V
 



 
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